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A certain number of men can finish a piece of work in 10 days. If however there were 10 men less it will take 10 days more for the work to be finished. How many men were there originally?

(a) 110 men
(b) 130 men
(c) 100 men
(d) none of these

This question is related to Accenture Interview
Asked by: Interview Candidate | Asked on: Feb 12th, 2006
Showing Answers 1 - 16 of 16 Answers
srini

Answered On : Feb 17th, 2006

none of these. actuallythereare 10 mens, if 10 mens do not work then it will take 10 more days to finish

  
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130 Men.

  
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pkaneria

Answered On : Mar 25th, 2006

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We have 2 equations

n*10 = x and (n-10)*20 = x which gives n=20, where n is number of men to begin with.

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bmuppets

Answered On : Mar 31st, 2006

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110.  x/10 = x-10/20   20x=10x-100   and x = 100.  Therefore x+10 = 110.

  
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aparna

Answered On : Apr 5th, 2006

none of these

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jayanthi

Answered On : Apr 19th, 2006

ans : none of these

x-10:x = 10:20

20x-200 =10x

10x = 200

x=20

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sandeep meela

Answered On : Apr 23rd, 2006

i suppose answer is a . wat would be the answer whether i m correct r not?

  
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infor

Answered On : May 1st, 2006

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Since the number of days for each men to finish the same work will remain same even if we increase the men or not. This goves us two equations which are equal. Say x men are there initially. x mean finish in 10 days so each men can finish the same work in 10x days. Now lets say we reduce men by 10, then we have x-10 men and numner of days is 20. so

10x=(x-10)20 which is 10x=200 so x= 20 men in the begining.

  
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k.avinash

Answered On : May 25th, 2006

 its none of these , the answer is 20 

  
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prasanna

Answered On : Jun 26th, 2006

let x be original no of menx --------> 10 daysx-10------>10+10 daysby inverse proportionalityx*10 = (x-10)*20x = 20None of these

  
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Basheer

Answered On : Aug 6th, 2006

Ans) D

  (x-10) : x  =  20 : 10

   20x-200  =  10x

   20x-10x  =  200

    x  =  200/10

    x  =  20

  
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rahul

Answered On : Oct 6th, 2006

none of these

  
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yogeshgurav007

Answered On : Feb 7th, 2007

Suppose X men does same work in 10 days

X-10 men does same work in 20 days

cross20X = 10X - 10010X = -100X = -10

means nobody there on work



Ans is D> none of these

  
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SKumarVembani

Answered On : Jun 30th, 2008

View all answers by SKumarVembani

let x men can finish it in 10 days    ( 1 man can finish it in 10x days)

then x-10 can finish it in 20 days   (1 man can finish it in 20(x-10) days)

here no of men is decreasing so no of days will be more to finish work( from above statements it is true )

since it  is indirectionally proportional 

10 * x = 20(x-10);

10x = 200;

x=20 ;ans :20

 

 

  
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anand3186

Answered On : Jul 16th, 2009

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Let no of men  = x.
x men can do a piece of work in 10 days.
so, 1 man can do it in 10*x days.
Now (x-10) men do the work in 20 days.
so, 1 man ... in 20*(x-10).
so, 20(x-10) = 10x.
so, x = 20.
Ans is option (d).

  
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prince.goyal

Answered On : Nov 16th, 2009

View all answers by prince.goyal

x*10=(x-10)*(10*2)

10x =20x-200
20x-10x=200
10x=200
x=20

check it if any step is wrong

  
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