A certain number of men can finish a piece of work in 10 days. If however there were 10 men less it will take 10 days more for the work to be finished. How many men were there originally?(a) 110 men(b) 130 men(c) 100 men(d) none of these
Since the number of days for each men to finish the same work will remain same even if we increase the men or not. This goves us two equations which are equal. Say x men are there initially. x mean finish in 10 days so each men can finish the same work in 10x days. Now lets say we reduce men by 10, then we have x-10 men and numner of days is 20. so
10x=(x-10)20 which is 10x=200 so x= 20 men in the begining.
k.avinash
May 25th, 2006
its none of these , the answer is 20
prasanna
Jun 26th, 2006
let x be original no of menx --------> 10 daysx-10------>10+10 daysby inverse proportionalityx*10 = (x-10)*20x = 20None of these
Basheer
Aug 6th, 2006
Ans) D
(x-10) : x = 20 : 10
20x-200 = 10x
20x-10x = 200
x = 200/10
x = 20
rahul
Oct 6th, 2006
none of these
yogeshgurav007
Feb 7th, 2007
Suppose X men does same work in 10 days
X-10 men does same work in 20 days
cross20X = 10X - 10010X = -100X = -10
means nobody there on work
Let no of men = x. x men can do a piece of work in 10 days. so, 1 man can do it in 10*x days. Now (x-10) men do the work in 20 days. so, 1 man ... in 20*(x-10). so, 20(x-10) = 10x. so, x = 20. Ans is option (d).
Here decrease of men results to increasing in work ie ab=K==>a=K/b ie one increases and the other decreases
So for this type of qtns take comparison of 2 eqtns as
10x=(10-x)20==>x=20 men required
VENKAT KRISHNAN V R
Nov 6th, 2014
10x = (10+10)(x-10) giving x = 20
vghj
Feb 27th, 2015
1
veru
Mar 5th, 2015
none of these
sudha
Jul 19th, 2015
How x came as 100? x is 10 only
althaf
Aug 17th, 2015
(d) none of these
sethulakshmy
Sep 14th, 2015
(d).None
ennar4u
Nov 19th, 2015
Using formula M1*D1= M2*D2
=> x*50 = (x+6)*40
=>50x - 40x = 240
=>x = 240/10
=>x = 24 men
Originally 24 men worked
kaushal
Jun 9th, 2016
(a) 110 men
Hammed Abid
Jun 9th, 2016
x*10=(x-10)*20
10x=20x-200
200=10x
x=20
nivya
Jul 14th, 2016
(a) 110 men
Anu
Sep 24th, 2016
how by 20x=10x-100
we will get x=100
arif khan
Oct 21st, 2016
Suppose x men take 10 days => 1 man will take 10 * x days
(for clarification think reverse process 1 man in 10 * x days so x men will do in (10*x)/x=>10)
Now x-10 men do in 20 days => (10x/(x-10))=20 => x=20 hence the answer :-)
S. Manoj kumar
Nov 17th, 2016
How can You say its 110?
Debarati
Nov 18th, 2016
x= Initial no. of men
y= Total work
y/x=10
y/(x-10)=20
10x=20x-200
10x=200 x=10 men :)
techgigg
Jan 30th, 2017
Ans : x * 10= (x-10) * 20
x=20
Vidhi
Feb 6th, 2017
Total Work=Total No. of time required * Total No. of man to perform work so, here....total day for x man is 10
total day for x-10 man is 10+10=20
10*x=(x-10)*20
10x=20x-200
therefore, x=100
Arnab Khan
Jun 28th, 2017
x/10=(x-10)/20
=>x=100
initially there was x+10=110 man
Saurabh
Aug 22nd, 2017
10x=20x-200 gives x=10 not 100.
Pallavi Valunj
Aug 29th, 2017
(d) none of these
pratap
Aug 31st, 2017
x=10
x-10=10+10
x=30
Ans: 30 men
pooja sharma
Sep 14th, 2017
d) none of the above
Explanation:
let x=10;
x-10 =20;
(x-10)*20=10x;
x=20;
Lakshmi priya
Sep 22nd, 2017
let x be the number of men
x can do their work in 10 days
x=10
if x decreases by 10 days increases by 10
x-10=20
x=30
ans:none of the above
Amit Mangal
Nov 28th, 2017
x*10=(x-10)*20
10x = 20x - 200
-10x = -200
x = 20
Tanuj Kapoor
Jan 29th, 2018
Check your calculation again
20x=10x-100 will give x=10 not 100
so x+10=20
hence answer is none of these
angy
Feb 9th, 2018
y/10-10/1=10,so when all cancels out,we have y-10=10,when 10 goes in the place of y and vice-versa,he y=0,so the answer is none of these
A certain number of men can finish a piece of work in 10 days. If however there were 10 men less it will take 10 days more for the work to be finished. How many men were there originally?(a) 110 men(b) 130 men(c) 100 men(d) none of these
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