Anthony Yekula
Answered On : Nov 21st, 2006
Lets assume that two womans as A&B
It has given A has 30 marbles and B has 30 marbles
If they given to friend to sell 5 marbles for 2 paise than
60=12*5 i..e 12*2 = 24 paise
But if they sell separately
A would have made
1) A sells 3 marbles for 1 paise so
30=10*3 i..e 10*1=10 paise
B would have made
1) B sells 2 marbles for 1 paise so
30=15*2 i.e 15*1=15 paise
combing A&B gives you 10+15=25

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John
Answered On : Nov 21st, 2006
What's the point?

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sankar
Answered On : Dec 4th, 2006
the above is only explanation
due to combination it will give 1 paise difference thats all

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Rathinavelu
Answered On : Dec 14th, 2006
Each women had 30 marbles.
First women : 3 marbles per paise, then she would have sold 10 sets of marbles(cheap marble)
Second women: 2 marbles per paise, then she would have sold 15 sets of marbles(costlier marble)
When the two types of marbles were combined, we got 60 marbles, 5 marbles per 2 paise. No of sets would be 12 sets.
As you can see, after selling 10 sets the cheapest marbles will be over. the remaining 2 sets i.e 10 marbles will be of costlier kind.
Till the 10 sets the combination is 3 cheap + 2 costlier
Now after selling 10 sets, 2 costlier + 2 coslier + 1 coslier makes a set
the cost of this combination should be 1 paise + 1 paise + 1/2 paise = 2 1/2 paise.
But the women sold this combination also for 2 paise, that is why we got 1 paise difference

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The problem is so simple......:-)
Total number of the unsoled marbels are.. 60
cost is 5 marbles for 2 paise..
there will be 12 sets...
12*2 is 24 paise is the final income...
But there will be 12(3 & 2) set of each marbles=12 set(5) of combined marbels.
cost of total of 36 cheaper marbel and 24 costlier marbels is 24
But there are only 30 cheaper and 30 costlier.
After 10 set of 5 marbels only costlier marbels are left..

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Point is that two women got confused.. thinking this way
each of them were selling at 3 / P and 2 / P and each got equal numbers in their hand i.e 30+30.. so they averaged the sales bye (3+2)/2.. i.e by selling 5 / P they will get same earnings as they original would have got if sold idividually. Their assumption is wrong.. to get same amount the would hv done as below
A's return 30/3 = 10P
B's expected return 30/2 = 15P
A+B's expected return = 25P
Hence they would have fixed the combined price as 60/25 per P i.e 12/5 (i.e 12 per 5P which is 2.4 for every P. However with the averaging confusion they sold at 5/2P which is 2.5 for every P.
Hence while selling they received only 60/2.5 = 24P insted of their expectation of 60/2.4 = 25P

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veena
Answered On : Jan 31st, 2007
1st man has 30 marbles...which he could sell at 1ps for 3 marbles..like 30/3 = 10ps he could get...2nd man also has 30 marbles left....supposed to be sold at 1ps for 2 marbleslike 30/2 = 15ps he could get....So they were gonna get 25ps in totalBut the decide to combine there marbles...30 + 30 = 60 marbles...and sell at the rate of 2ps for 5 marbles60/5 = 12so they will get 12 x 2 = 24pswhat's the mystery??

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Vairavan
Answered On : Feb 28th, 2007
Each women had 30 marbles.
First women : 3 marbles per paise, then she would have sold 10 sets of marbles(cheap marble)
Second women: 2 marbles per paise, then she would have sold 15 sets of marbles(costlier marble)
When the two types of marbles were combined, we got 60 marbles, 5 marbles per 2 paise. No of sets would be 12 sets.
As you can see, after selling 10 sets the cheapest marbles will be over. the remaining 2 sets i.e 10 marbles will be of costlier kind.
Till the 10 sets the combination is 3 cheap + 2 costlier
Now after selling 10 sets, 2 costlier + 2 coslier + 1 coslier makes a set
the cost of this combination should be 1 paise + 1 paise + 1/2 paise = 2 1/2 paise.
But the women sold this combination also for 2 paise, that is why we got 1 paise difference
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kiranmai
Answered On : Mar 1st, 2007
one women sells 3 marbles for 1 paise
so for 1 marble it costs 1/3 paise
for 30 marbles 1/3*30=10 paisse
second women sells 2 marbles for 1 paise
so for 1 marble 1/2 paise
for 30 marbles 1/2*30=15 paise
totally 10 +15 is 25 paise
but now they are selling at 5 marbles for 2 paise
so for 1 marble 2/5 paise
for 30+30=60 marble 2/5*60=24 paise
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welldonehari
Answered On : Mar 6th, 2007
hi my dear friend its simple to explain, let me explain for u
x sold 3 marbles per paise so for 30 marbles he got 10 paise
y sold 2 marbles per paise so for 30 marbles he got 15 paise
now when x + y solds 60 marbles such that 5 marbles for 2 paise they got 24 paise here the q is where is that one paise
when 3 marble sold for 1 paise the rate of 1 marble is 0.33333 paise so here u got some loss. (note it is very imp.)
when 2 marbles sold for 1 paise the rateof 1 mable is 0.5 paise
now add x and y the rate of 2 marble(each one from x and y) u got 0.833 paise
instead he sold 5 marbles for 2 paise so the rate of 1 marble is 2/5= 0.4 paise
now for 30 sets i.e. 60 marbles or 12 sets (if 5 marbles per set) there fore now now 0.4*12=4.8 paise(if 5 marbles is for 2 paise) convert it for 1 paise =4.8/2 =2.4 paise
now do u got it
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A would have got 10 paise and B would have got 15paise if sold individually. The excess there and the defecit here have been balanced and one paise lost
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I think they both lost their marbles...
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Hassan Farooqi
Answered On : Jul 18th, 2011
The answer is simple. The women were no mathematicians otherwise they wont be selling marbles :) They calculated the wrong rate. (30+30)*(2/5)=24 whereas 10+15=25. Instead of calculating ((1/3)+(1/2))/2 (0.4166.n) per marble, they calculated (2+3)/(1+1) (0.40) per marble. If they were charging paisas per marbles instead of marbles per paisa, they would not have been confused. Lucky they were not playing hedge funds with out pension money.
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