CATG. : DIFFICULT+ CALCULATIVE40 men can finish a job in 40 days.5 men leave after every 10th day.find the no. of days. the job will be done ?

Questions by shreeram_iyer

Showing Answers 1 - 7 of 7 Answers

jay kumar mishra

  • Dec 9th, 2005
 

1 man in 1 day can do 1/1600 work

  1/1600 * (40*10+ 35*10 + 30*10 ..........) = 1

     40*10 + 35*10 + 30*10 +25*10 +20*10 +15*6.67  = 1600

   no. of days = 56 2/3

  

rahul16agarwal

  • Jul 14th, 2006
 

40 men   40 days      1 work

1             1                 1/1600 work

(I )  case    for ten days        40       10       ? work            remaining= 3/4

(II) case                               35      10      35/160           rem=(3/4 ? 35/160)=17/32

(III) case                             30       10        3/16            rem=(17/32 ? 3/16)=11/32

(IV) case                            25                10                5/32            rem=3/16

(V) case                               20                 10               2/16          rem=1/16

(VI) case                            15                  1                   15/1600

                                           15                 6.6                 (15*6.6)/1600 = 1/16

Therefore total  10+10+10+10+10+6.6=56.6~57

meera_987

  • Apr 22nd, 2008
 

from the above solution,

in the case : 20 men , 10 days , work done= 1/8 and remaining work=1/16

next case: 15 men, 10 days, work done= 15/160=3/32=1/16

remaining work= (1/16)-(1/16)

so the answer wud b 10+10+10+10+10+10 = 60

  Was this answer useful?  Yes

Give your answer:

If you think the above answer is not correct, Please select a reason and add your answer below.

 

Related Answered Questions

 

Related Open Questions