CATG. : DIFFICULT+ CALCULATIVE40 men can finish a job in 40 days.5 men leave after every 10th day.find the no. of days. the job will be done ?

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jayant dhargawe

  • Sep 29th, 2005
 

finish in 70 days

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surendran

  • Oct 26th, 2005
 

i found the answer .

the answer is 60

sai

  • Jan 22nd, 2006
 

this is easy !job requires (40 x 40) men-daysif 'a' is no of days then 40 -- 40------------a-10= 35 * { (40*40) / ( (35*40) }a=50the ans is 50

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sai

  • Jan 22nd, 2006
 

this is easy !job requires (40 x 40) men-daysif 'a' is no of days then 40 -- 40------------a-10= 35 * { (40*40) / ( (35*40) }a=50the ans is 50

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vibha kumari

  • Feb 25th, 2006
 

i solved this question and got the result as the work will be completed in 57 days

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jewel saha

  • Mar 18th, 2006
 

56.6 days approx. Or 57 days

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Answer: 56.667 days

Solution:

40*40=1600 men-days of work done in 40 days

So, 10*(40+35+30+25+20)=1500 men-days in 50 days

remaining 100 men-days of work to be done by 15 men

in 6.667 days 15 men complete 100 men-days of work

So Total no. of days = 56.667 under the given condition

NIRESH

  • Mar 24th, 2006
 

for the last 30 days, 40 men can complete the job in 30 days, so with 35 men 40*30 = 35*x x = 34.28 total days = 44.28

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Jayesh Rajpal

  • Apr 14th, 2006
 

not that easy!!!!

ans is 56.666 days.

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bbhar

  • Apr 15th, 2006
 

Amount of work = 40 person x 40 days = 1600 person days

In the scheme where 5 person leaves every 10th days:

Period

Pers

Days

PD

Tot PD

00-10

40

10

400

400

11-20

35

10

350

750

21-30

30

10

300

1050

31-40

25

10

250

1300

41-50

20

10

200

1500

50-57

15

7

105

1605

So 57 days will be required.

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bbhar

  • Apr 15th, 2006
 

Amount of work = 40 pers x 40 days = 1600 pd.

In the scheme where  5 men leave after evey 10th day

Fr-To

Pers

Days

PD

Tot PD

01-10

40

10

400

400

11-20

35

10

350

750

21-30

30

10

300

1050

31-40

25

10

250

1300

41-50

20

10

200

1500

51-57

15

7

105

1605

So 57 days will be required.

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Deepak Narang

  • Jun 2nd, 2006
 

the ans is 57 day............i have calculated it ...

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vishnu priya

  • Jun 27th, 2006
 

please give the answer in detailed manner

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subbu

  • Jul 25th, 2006
 

i solved this problem. the answer is approximately 57days.

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nick

  • Aug 14th, 2006
 

one man rate = 1/1600 now work done by 40 men in 10days = 10/40 = 1/4 therefore now 35 guys would do the 3/4 work now rate at which 35 guys work is 35/1600 ..........this is work/day => 3/4 work would be donein 3/4*35/1600 which cmes out to be around 61

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Balaji

  • Sep 19th, 2006
 

45 days

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pavak

  • Jan 10th, 2007
 

total   57+5=62 days

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Answer is 56.67


40 men work in 40 days
1 men work in 1600 days
suppose we have to work done 1600 units
and 1 men work in 1 day 1 unit
so 10 day work completed  10*40 equals 400 (40 men present)
 
20 day...........................10*35 equals 350
20 day...........................10*30 equals 300
40 day...........................10*25 equals 250
50 day...........................10*20 equals 200

In 50 day total work completed 1500 units (Now 15 men present)
56 day........................... 6*15 equals 90 units so 
Remainning 10 units work copleted 10/15 equals 0.67
Total work completed in 56.67 day.

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emp subash

  • Jul 23rd, 2010
 

Men    Days     Units 

40    *   40    =  1600 
totally 1600 units of work to be done 
10   *  40    = 400
10   *  35    = 350
10   *  30    = 300
10   *  25    = 250
since 1300 units of work has been completed 
so remaining 300 units
10   *  20    = 200 
remaining 100 units 
logically 
6.6  * 15     = 99

Totally we have 1599 units

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Shyamal Bauri

  • Mar 22nd, 2018
 

It is 56 x 1/3

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