jayant dhargawe

• Sep 29th, 2005

 

finish in 70 days

surendran

• Oct 26th, 2005

 

i found the answer .

the answer is 60

sai

• Jan 22nd, 2006

 

this is easy !job requires (40 x 40) men-daysif 'a' is no of days then 40 -- 40------------a-10= 35 * { (40*40) / ( (35*40) }a=50the ans is 50

sai

• Jan 22nd, 2006

 

this is easy !job requires (40 x 40) men-daysif 'a' is no of days then 40 -- 40------------a-10= 35 * { (40*40) / ( (35*40) }a=50the ans is 50

vibha kumari

• Feb 25th, 2006

 

i solved this question and got the result as the work will be completed in 57 days

sridhar

• Mar 6th, 2006

 

57 days

jewel saha

• Mar 18th, 2006

 

56.6 days approx. Or 57 days

sambath_nataraj

 Profile Answers by sambath_nataraj 

• Mar 21st, 2006

 

Answer: 56.667 days

Solution:

40*40=1600 men-days of work done in 40 days

So, 10*(40+35+30+25+20)=1500 men-days in 50 days

remaining 100 men-days of work to be done by 15 men

in 6.667 days 15 men complete 100 men-days of work

So Total no. of days = 56.667 under the given condition

NIRESH

• Mar 24th, 2006

 

for the last 30 days, 40 men can complete the job in 30 days, so with 35 men 40*30 = 35*x x = 34.28 total days = 44.28

yashwanth

• Mar 25th, 2006

 

57 days

Jayesh Rajpal

• Apr 14th, 2006

 

not that easy!!!!

ans is 56.666 days.

bbhar

 Profile Answers by bbhar 

• Apr 15th, 2006

 

Amount of work = 40 person x 40 days = 1600 person days

In the scheme where 5 person leaves every 10th days:

Period	Pers	Days	PD	Tot PD
00-10	40	10	400	400
11-20	35	10	350	750
21-30	30	10	300	1050
31-40	25	10	250	1300
41-50	20	10	200	1500
50-57	15	7	105	1605

So 57 days will be required.

bbhar

 Profile Answers by bbhar 

• Apr 15th, 2006

 

Amount of work = 40 pers x 40 days = 1600 pd.

In the scheme where  5 men leave after evey 10th day

Fr-To	Pers	Days	PD	Tot PD
01-10	40	10	400	400
11-20	35	10	350	750
21-30	30	10	300	1050
31-40	25	10	250	1300
41-50	20	10	200	1500
51-57	15	7	105	1605

So 57 days will be required.

Deepak Narang

• Jun 2nd, 2006

 

the ans is 57 day............i have calculated it ...

vishnu priya

• Jun 27th, 2006

 

please give the answer in detailed manner

subbu

• Jul 25th, 2006

 

i solved this problem. the answer is approximately 57days.

nick

• Aug 14th, 2006

 

one man rate = 1/1600 now work done by 40 men in 10days = 10/40 = 1/4 therefore now 35 guys would do the 3/4 work now rate at which 35 guys work is 35/1600 ..........this is work/day => 3/4 work would be donein 3/4*35/1600 which cmes out to be around 61

Balaji

• Sep 19th, 2006

 

45 days

pavak

• Jan 10th, 2007

 

total   57+5=62 days

manishmca1

 Profile Answers by manishmca1 

• Apr 30th, 2008

 

answer is 57 days
(56.6666) = 57 days

abhijeetdongre

 Profile Answers by abhijeetdongre 

• Oct 3rd, 2009

 

Correct ans is 57 (actually 50+100/15).

pravesh28

 Profile Answers by pravesh28 Questions by pravesh28

• Mar 27th, 2010

 

Answer is 56.67

40 men work in 40 days

1 men work in 1600 days

suppose we have to work done 1600 units

and 1 men work in 1 day 1 unit

so 10 day work completed  10*40 equals 400 (40 men present)

 

20 day...........................10*35 equals 350

20 day...........................10*30 equals 300

40 day...........................10*25 equals 250

50 day...........................10*20 equals 200

In 50 day total work completed 1500 units (Now 15 men present)

56 day........................... 6*15 equals 90 units so 

Remainning 10 units work copleted 10/15 equals 0.67

Total work completed in 56.67 day.

emp subash

 Profile Answers by emp subash 

• Jul 23rd, 2010

 

Men    Days     Units 

40    *   40    =  1600 

totally 1600 units of work to be done 

10   *  40    = 400

10   *  35    = 350

10   *  30    = 300

10   *  25    = 250

since 1300 units of work has been completed 

so remaining 300 units

10   *  20    = 200 

remaining 100 units 

logically 

6.6  * 15     = 99

Totally we have 1599 units

Shyamal Bauri

• Mar 22nd, 2018

 

It is 56 x 1/3