# A certain number of men can finish a piece of work in 10 days. If however there were 10 men less it will take 10 days more for the work to be finished. How many men were there originally?(a) 110 men(b) 130 men(c) 100 men(d) none of these

This question is related to Accenture Interview

#### srini

• Feb 17th, 2006

none of these. actuallythereare 10 mens, if 10 mens do not work then it will take 10 more days to finish

#### sachinp1979 Profile Answers by sachinp1979 Questions by sachinp1979

• Feb 18th, 2006

130 Men.

#### pkaneria Profile Answers by pkaneria

• Mar 25th, 2006

We have 2 equations

n*10 = x and (n-10)*20 = x which gives n=20, where n is number of men to begin with.

#### bmuppets Profile Answers by bmuppets

• Mar 31st, 2006

110.  x/10 = x-10/20   20x=10x-100   and x = 100.  Therefore x+10 = 110.

#### aparna

• Apr 5th, 2006

none of these

#### jayanthi

• Apr 19th, 2006

ans : none of these

x-10:x = 10:20

20x-200 =10x

10x = 200

x=20

#### sandeep meela

• Apr 23rd, 2006

i suppose answer is a . wat would be the answer whether i m correct r not?

#### infor Profile Answers by infor

• May 1st, 2006

Since the number of days for each men to finish the same work will remain same even if we increase the men or not. This goves us two equations which are equal. Say x men are there initially. x mean finish in 10 days so each men can finish the same work in 10x days. Now lets say we reduce men by 10, then we have x-10 men and numner of days is 20. so

10x=(x-10)20 which is 10x=200 so x= 20 men in the begining.

#### k.avinash

• May 25th, 2006

its none of these , the answer is 20

#### prasanna

• Jun 26th, 2006

let x be original no of menx --------> 10 daysx-10------>10+10 daysby inverse proportionalityx*10 = (x-10)*20x = 20None of these

#### Basheer

• Aug 6th, 2006

Ans) D

(x-10) : x  =  20 : 10

20x-200  =  10x

20x-10x  =  200

x  =  200/10

x  =  20

#### rahul

• Oct 6th, 2006

none of these

#### yogeshgurav007

• Feb 7th, 2007

Suppose X men does same work in 10 days
X-10 men does same work in 20 days
cross20X = 10X - 10010X = -100X = -10
means nobody there on work

Ans is D> none of these

#### SKumarVembani Profile Answers by SKumarVembani

• Jun 30th, 2008

let x men can finish it in 10 days    ( 1 man can finish it in 10x days)

then x-10 can finish it in 20 days   (1 man can finish it in 20(x-10) days)

here no of men is decreasing so no of days will be more to finish work( from above statements it is true )

since it  is indirectionally proportional

10 * x = 20(x-10);

10x = 200;

x=20 ;ans :20

#### anand3186 Profile Answers by anand3186

• Jul 16th, 2009

Let no of men  = x.
x men can do a piece of work in 10 days.
so, 1 man can do it in 10*x days.
Now (x-10) men do the work in 20 days.
so, 1 man ... in 20*(x-10).
so, 20(x-10) = 10x.
so, x = 20.
Ans is option (d).

#### prince.goyal Profile Answers by prince.goyal

• Nov 16th, 2009

x*10=(x-10)*(10*2)

10x =20x-200
20x-10x=200
10x=200
x=20

check it if any step is wrong

#### Kaviya

• Apr 25th, 2014

110

#### kiransai Profile Answers by kiransai

• Sep 12th, 2014

Here decrease of men results to increasing in work ie ab=K==>a=K/b ie one increases and the other decreases
So for this type of qtns take comparison of 2 eqtns as
10x=(10-x)20==>x=20 men required

#### VENKAT KRISHNAN V R

• Nov 6th, 2014

10x = (10+10)(x-10) giving x = 20

#### vghj

• Feb 27th, 2015

1

#### veru

• Mar 5th, 2015

none of these

#### sudha

• Jul 19th, 2015

How x came as 100? x is 10 only

#### althaf

• Aug 17th, 2015

(d) none of these

#### sethulakshmy

• Sep 14th, 2015

(d).None

#### ennar4u

• Nov 19th, 2015

Using formula M1*D1= M2*D2
=> x*50 = (x+6)*40
=>50x - 40x = 240
=>x = 240/10
=>x = 24 men
Originally 24 men worked

#### kaushal

• Jun 9th, 2016

(a) 110 men

#### Hammed Abid

• Jun 9th, 2016

x*10=(x-10)*20
10x=20x-200
200=10x
x=20

#### nivya

• Jul 14th, 2016

(a) 110 men

#### Anu

• Sep 24th, 2016

how by 20x=10x-100
we will get x=100

#### arif khan

• Oct 21st, 2016

Suppose x men take 10 days => 1 man will take 10 * x days
(for clarification think reverse process 1 man in 10 * x days so x men will do in (10*x)/x=>10)

Now x-10 men do in 20 days => (10x/(x-10))=20 => x=20 hence the answer :-)

#### S. Manoj kumar

• Nov 17th, 2016

How can You say its 110?

#### Debarati

• Nov 18th, 2016

x= Initial no. of men
y= Total work

y/x=10
y/(x-10)=20
10x=20x-200
10x=200 x=10 men :)

#### techgigg

• Jan 30th, 2017

Ans : x * 10= (x-10) * 20
x=20

#### Vidhi

• Feb 6th, 2017

Total Work=Total No. of time required * Total No. of man to perform work so, here....total day for x man is 10
total day for x-10 man is 10+10=20
10*x=(x-10)*20
10x=20x-200
therefore, x=100

#### Arnab Khan

• Jun 28th, 2017

x/10=(x-10)/20
=>x=100
initially there was x+10=110 man

#### Saurabh

• Aug 22nd, 2017

10x=20x-200 gives x=10 not 100.

#### Pallavi Valunj

• Aug 29th, 2017

(d) none of these

#### pratap

• Aug 31st, 2017

x=10
x-10=10+10
x=30
Ans: 30 men

#### pooja sharma

• Sep 14th, 2017

d) none of the above
Explanation:
let x=10;
x-10 =20;
(x-10)*20=10x;
x=20;

#### Lakshmi priya

• Sep 22nd, 2017

let x be the number of men
x can do their work in 10 days
x=10
if x decreases by 10 days increases by 10
x-10=20
x=30
ans:none of the above

#### Amit Mangal

• Nov 28th, 2017

x*10=(x-10)*20
10x = 20x - 200
-10x = -200
x = 20

#### Tanuj Kapoor

• Jan 29th, 2018

20x=10x-100 will give x=10 not 100
so x+10=20
hence answer is none of these

#### angy

• Feb 9th, 2018

y/10-10/1=10,so when all cancels out,we have y-10=10,when 10 goes in the place of y and vice-versa,he y=0,so the answer is none of these

#### Ankit

• Aug 26th, 2018

130

#### ganesh

• Oct 4th, 2018

130 men

#### jyotika

• Mar 6th, 2019  