A certain number of men can finish a piece of work in 10 days. If however there were 10 men less it will take 10 days more for the work to be finished. How many men were there originally?(a) 110 men(b) 130 men(c) 100 men(d) none of these

Since the number of days for each men to finish the same work will remain same even if we increase the men or not. This goves us two equations which are equal. Say x men are there initially. x mean finish in 10 days so each men can finish the same work in 10x days. Now lets say we reduce men by 10, then we have x-10 men and numner of days is 20. so

10x=(x-10)20 which is 10x=200 so x= 20 men in the begining.

k.avinash

May 25th, 2006

its none of these , the answer is 20

prasanna

Jun 26th, 2006

let x be original no of menx --------> 10 daysx-10------>10+10 daysby inverse proportionalityx*10 = (x-10)*20x = 20None of these

Basheer

Aug 6th, 2006

Ans) D

(x-10) : x = 20 : 10

20x-200 = 10x

20x-10x = 200

x = 200/10

x = 20

rahul

Oct 6th, 2006

none of these

yogeshgurav007

Feb 7th, 2007

Suppose X men does same work in 10 days
X-10 men does same work in 20 days
cross20X = 10X - 10010X = -100X = -10
means nobody there on work

Let no of men = x. x men can do a piece of work in 10 days. so, 1 man can do it in 10*x days. Now (x-10) men do the work in 20 days. so, 1 man ... in 20*(x-10). so, 20(x-10) = 10x. so, x = 20. Ans is option (d).

Here decrease of men results to increasing in work ie ab=K==>a=K/b ie one increases and the other decreases
So for this type of qtns take comparison of 2 eqtns as
10x=(10-x)20==>x=20 men required

VENKAT KRISHNAN V R

Nov 6th, 2014

10x = (10+10)(x-10) giving x = 20

vghj

Feb 27th, 2015

1

veru

Mar 5th, 2015

none of these

sudha

Jul 19th, 2015

How x came as 100? x is 10 only

althaf

Aug 17th, 2015

(d) none of these

sethulakshmy

Sep 14th, 2015

(d).None

ennar4u

Nov 19th, 2015

Using formula M1*D1= M2*D2
=> x*50 = (x+6)*40
=>50x - 40x = 240
=>x = 240/10
=>x = 24 men
Originally 24 men worked

kaushal

Jun 9th, 2016

(a) 110 men

Hammed Abid

Jun 9th, 2016

x*10=(x-10)*20
10x=20x-200
200=10x
x=20

nivya

Jul 14th, 2016

(a) 110 men

Anu

Sep 24th, 2016

how by 20x=10x-100
we will get x=100

arif khan

Oct 21st, 2016

Suppose x men take 10 days => 1 man will take 10 * x days
(for clarification think reverse process 1 man in 10 * x days so x men will do in (10*x)/x=>10)

Now x-10 men do in 20 days => (10x/(x-10))=20 => x=20 hence the answer :-)

S. Manoj kumar

Nov 17th, 2016

How can You say its 110?

Debarati

Nov 18th, 2016

x= Initial no. of men
y= Total work

y/x=10
y/(x-10)=20
10x=20x-200
10x=200 x=10 men :)

techgigg

Jan 30th, 2017

Ans : x * 10= (x-10) * 20
x=20

Vidhi

Feb 6th, 2017

Total Work=Total No. of time required * Total No. of man to perform work so, here....total day for x man is 10
total day for x-10 man is 10+10=20
10*x=(x-10)*20
10x=20x-200
therefore, x=100

Arnab Khan

Jun 28th, 2017

x/10=(x-10)/20
=>x=100
initially there was x+10=110 man

Saurabh

Aug 22nd, 2017

10x=20x-200 gives x=10 not 100.

Pallavi Valunj

Aug 29th, 2017

(d) none of these

pratap

Aug 31st, 2017

x=10
x-10=10+10
x=30
Ans: 30 men

pooja sharma

Sep 14th, 2017

d) none of the above
Explanation:
let x=10;
x-10 =20;
(x-10)*20=10x;
x=20;

Lakshmi priya

Sep 22nd, 2017

let x be the number of men
x can do their work in 10 days
x=10
if x decreases by 10 days increases by 10
x-10=20
x=30
ans:none of the above

Amit Mangal

Nov 28th, 2017

x*10=(x-10)*20
10x = 20x - 200
-10x = -200
x = 20

Tanuj Kapoor

Jan 29th, 2018

Check your calculation again
20x=10x-100 will give x=10 not 100
so x+10=20
hence answer is none of these

angy

Feb 9th, 2018

y/10-10/1=10,so when all cancels out,we have y-10=10,when 10 goes in the place of y and vice-versa,he y=0,so the answer is none of these

## A certain number of men can finish a piece of work in 10 days. If however there were 10 men less it will take 10 days more for the work to be finished. How many men were there originally?(a) 110 men(b) 130 men(c) 100 men(d) none of these

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