Sin square + cos square=1 how

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devendra singh bhatia

  • Jul 21st, 2006
 

sin square +cos square = (P/H) square + (B/H)square =>P Sqr + B Sqr=1 by pythagores theorem

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aishwarya

  • Jul 22nd, 2006
 

please add th answers to all the question so that it  will be very helpful for all

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saravanan

  • Jul 27th, 2006
 

sin=opp/hyp

cos=adj/hyp

(opp^2+adj^2)/hyp2

=hyp^2/hyp^2

=1.

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yogendra reddy

  • Sep 6th, 2006
 

as sin=opp/hyp,cos=adj/hyp and according to pythagoras theorem opp square+adj square,so sin square + cos square is 1.

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deepak.u.s

  • Sep 13th, 2006
 

using pythagorus theorem and by converting the polar cordinates to the cartesian form we can say that the above is true

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Ashok

  • Sep 19th, 2006
 

Hi,

  All are thinking that just SIN as opp/hyp and COS as adj/hyp.

Why aren't we all not thinking about the thing that there should be some angle associated with SIN and COS.

I think that square as some form of "angle like thing"(like thita, beta, alpha ,..) and place square as 90,... degrees (or) 0,360,720... degrees.

sin 90 + cos 90 = 1

   or

sin 0+ cos 0= 1

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Ashwin

  • Oct 22nd, 2006
 

hey the answer is quite simple

sin2 = 1 - cos2 (by trig formulae)

cos2 = 1 - sin2 (by trig formulae)

therefore

substitute any one of the above formulae in the question

therefore we get

sin2 + cos2 = 1

(1 - cos2) + cos2 = 1

thats it......:)

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pitamber kumar

  • Oct 23rd, 2006
 

we have

sinx=p/h  & cosx=b/h

so,

sin^2x +cos^2x =(p/h)^2+(b/h)^2=(p^2+b^2)/h^2=1

((((p^2+b^2=h^2)))))

by pythagorous theorem,

urs

pitamber kumar

NIT,kurkshetra

civil engineering

b.tech(3rd sem)

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